Outflows are 1,000 now and 1,100 at year 1; finance rate 10%. PV of outflows?
A1,900
B2,000
C2,100
D2,200
Answer & Solution
Correct answer: B. 2,000
The year-1 outflow is worth 1,100/1.1 = 1,000 today, so the total is 1,000 + 1,000 = 2,000.
Keep practising Modified Internal Rate of Return
Browse all Modified Internal Rate of Return questions for CA Inter, or explore more Financial Management topics.
Related questions
Terminal value 7,600 and outflow PV 4,636.36 over 3 years give MIRR near?Outlay 2,000 now; inflows 1,100 (yr 1), 1,210 (yr 2); reinvestment 10%. MIRR?Outflows 1,000 now and 1,100 at year 1 (finance 10%); inflow 2,880 at year 2. MIRR?An outflow of 1,210 falls at year 2; finance rate 10%. PV at time zero?2,000 received at year 1 is reinvested at 5% for one year. Value then?Three yearly inflows of 1,000 are reinvested at 10%. Terminal value at year 3?An inflow of 1,000 at year 1 is reinvested at 10% until year 3. Value then?Outflows worth 256 today grow to a terminal value of 1,296 in 4 years. MIRR?