alleryThe value of $\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi/2} \cos x\,dx$ is:
A0
B$\dfrac{\pi}{2}$
C$-1$
D1
Answer & Solution
Correct answer: D. 1
We have ∫₀^{π/2} cos x dx = [sin x]₀^{π/2}.
That is ∫₀^{π/2} cos x dx = sin(π/2) − sin 0.
So ∫₀^{π/2} cos x dx = 1.
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