allery∫ from 0 to π/2 sin x dx =
A1 (= [-cos x] from 0 to π/2 = 0 - (-1))
B-1
Cπ/2
D0
Answer & Solution
Correct answer: A. 1 (= [-cos x] from 0 to π/2 = 0 - (-1))
We have ∫₀^(π/2) sin x dx = [-cos x]₀^(π/2).
That is ∫₀^(π/2) sin x dx = -cos(π/2) + cos 0.
That is ∫₀^(π/2) sin x dx = 0 + 1.
So ∫₀^(π/2) sin x dx = 1.
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