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While proving $\dfrac{\sin\theta-\cos\theta+1}{\sin\theta+\cos\theta-1}=\dfrac{1}{\sec\theta-\tan\theta}$, why do we divide the numerator and denominator of the left-hand side by $\cos\theta$?
ATo convert the expression into terms of $\sec\theta$ and $\tan\theta$
BTo make both numerator and denominator equal to 1
CTo convert the expression into terms of $\cosec\theta$ and $\cot\theta$
DBecause $\cos\theta=1$ for every acute angle
Answer & Solution
Correct answer: A. To convert the expression into terms of $\sec\theta$ and $\tan\theta$
The target expression on the right involves $\sec\theta$ and $\tan\theta$. Dividing by $\cos\theta$ converts $\frac{\sin\theta}{\cos\theta}$ into $\tan\theta$, $\frac{1}{\cos\theta}$ into $\sec\theta$, and $\frac{\cos\theta}{\cos\theta}$ into 1, so the LHS can be compared directly with the RHS.
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